3 ms·
why does it have to be exclusively 401k?
by qaq 7y ago
why does it have to be exclusively 401k?
- dragonwriter 7y agoBecause people whose support comes from other sources have the income-boosting effects of anything that bumps investment yields reduced in proportion to their non-investment sources of income. Yes, a lot of (especially the upper income segment) of the working class has some investments, particularly in retirement accounts; this doesn't mean they generally see the same income benefit as major capitalists from policies that boost investment yield.