4 ms·
"How true" of course depends on the faith of the one who discusses it -- the faiths are exactly made based on the different "stories" about the same topics, whi
by acqq 7y ago
"How true" of course depends on the faith of the one who discusses it -- the faiths are exactly made based on the different "stories" about the same topics, which the believers have to believe. It appears to me that the relevant research behind "1906 Jewish Encyclopedia":
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/11305-names-of-god#anchor2 http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/11305-names-of-go...
is good and that it gives the sources to its claims. I'm not aware that the later scholars refuted the relevant points for this topic:
"At least as early as the third century B.C. the name seems to have been regarded by the Jews as a "nomen ineffabile," on the basis of a somewhat extreme interpretation of Ex. xx. 7 and Lev. xxiv. 11 (see Philo, "De Vita Mosis," iii. 519, 529). Written only in consonants, the true pronunciation was forgotten by them. The Septuagint, and after it the New Testament, invariably render δκύριος ("the Lord")."
Note: the Septuagint, the translation of the Hebrew bible to Greek is effectively what was since the development of Christianity called by the Christians "the Old Testament" and the Christian bible textual analysis proves that the authors of the New Testament almost exclusively used only the Greek translation and also wrote the New Testament as Greek native speakers in Greek, having even misunderstandings from interpreting the Greek words differently than the original Hebrew, even if Hebrew could also be misinterpreted during reading, but not in the same way. Anyway, that's how other languages got the "Lord" and equivalents in their translations from what was originally written: from the Septuagint and https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CE%BA%CF%8D%CF%81%CE%B9%CE%BF%CF%82 https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CE%BA%CF%8D%CF%81%CE%B9%CE%B... (note the difference from the 1906 Jewish quote).
Anyway, there is also the article about Jehovah, "mispronunciation (introduced by Christian theologians, but almost entirely disregarded by the Jews) of the Hebrew "Yhwh"":
http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/8568-jehovah http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/8568-jehovah
And this is where the faith of these involved in the discussion can influence their interpretation even more.
Still I believe this statement is true:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton#Yahweh https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton#Yahweh
"Gesenius's proposal to read YHWH as יַהְוֶה is accepted as the best scholarly reconstructed vocalised Hebrew spelling of the Tetragrammaton" (i.e. transliterated into English as Yahweh)"
- thaumasiotes 7y ago> Written only in consonants, the true pronunciation was forgotten by them. So the theophoric names use vowels unrelated to the original pronunciation? Those names all postdate the loss of the vowels? I would be pretty surprised if that were true. Are the vowels in theophoric names fixed by some consideration other than the vowels in the word from which the names derive?
- acqq 7y ago> the theophoric names use vowels unrelated to the original pronunciation? It’s not about all names, I guess you ask about YHWH. If you follow the links from previous messages you can see that we have information how the Greeks pronounced it and also the linguistic hints known to the language experts. Based on both it is quite accepted that it’s pronounced approximately yahweh with probably silent h and the ending e sounding like English a in an article like in “a house”. So the alternative maybe simpler spelling would be yaaw. But then people would ask where both h went. Also note that English pronouncing of J from the German transcriptions like in “Jar” is always wrong, it should always be Y.