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Its actually now standard in anti-trust law now that you actually have to show significant consumer harm. Richard Posner writting has this made the standard in
by nickik 7y ago
Its actually now standard in anti-trust law now that you actually have to show significant consumer harm. Richard Posner writting has this made the standard in Anti-Trust.
In the past it was just politics and any big company could get hit with anti-trust. Presidents routinly used anti-trust to go after their political enemies.
And if you don't use this 'pure' definition you are essentially just saying 'this is a big company'. Every single large company would be a 'monopoly' by those definition.
- dominicr 7y agoThe comment I was replying to was referring to the word's definition in economics, not the current legal standards of specific countries.