If the record shows that the judge ordered the bailiff to shock the man, then it seems like a legal basis for suing the judge. From what I read the judge didn'

If the record shows that the judge ordered the bailiff to shock the man, then it seems like a legal basis for suing the judge. From what I read the judge didn't shock him, the bailiff did. So this seems like a loophole in the system. Maybe the judge "nodded" at the bailiff? That would be bad if there is no real verbal order on record to sue over. This seems like the beginnings of Mad Max or worse.