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If you value it at or above market rates, then, by definition, whoever bought it from you would pay you enough money to buy another at market rate.
by RcouF1uZ4gsC 7y ago
If you value it at or above market rates, then, by definition, whoever bought it from you would pay you enough money to buy another at market rate.
- magicalhippo 7y agoPoint taken. However that still leaves the possibility that I no longer am able to pay taxes according to current market rates. edit: Basically it assumes the object is available on the market, and it's available for the price I can afford to valuate it at. How does one prevent this tax scheme from being weaponized when one of those two assumptions are not valid?