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Actually, I think that whether or not something can be called "slavery" is irrelevant to whether or not it is wrong. If it shares the same moral violations that
by Locke1689 16y ago
Actually, I think that whether or not something can be called "slavery" is irrelevant to whether or not it is wrong. If it shares the same moral violations that our conventional idea of slavery does then it is wrong, but not because it is called slavery but because it violates the same moral or ethical precepts. If it could be called slavery but doesn't violate these precepts then it is not a moral wrong. This is actually slightly related to Socrates' question in Plato's Euthyphro.