I'd argue that as long as the (hidden) rules of corruption are somewhat known and stable. That would be fine. Also, some would consider the US lobbying industr

I'd argue that as long as the (hidden) rules of corruption are somewhat known and stable. That would be fine. Also, some would consider the US lobbying industry is a legalised form of corruption. (just an example, not trying to single out the US) Anyway, am talking theoretically and it's all comparative.