3 ms·
The "no" was responding to the suggestion that there is a moral equivalency to the two scenarios, and I was disagreeing that there is one.
by SamBam 7y ago
The "no" was responding to the suggestion that there is a moral equivalency to the two scenarios, and I was disagreeing that there is one.
- javajosh 7y agoThere is a moral equivalence between the method, not the goal.
- SamBam 7y agoThat makes no sense. Morality applies to the goal (or the result, including side-effects, which may or may not have been the goal). If I scratch you to relieve an itch you can't reach, or I scratch you to violently gouge out your eyes, it's a meaningless comment to say "There's a moral equivalence to the method." The only "equivalence" between the two original scenarios is that they both involve the verb "limiting," but there is no "moral equivalence" that automatically applies to any action using that verb. Or is there a "moral equivalence" between the laws to limit abortion and my attempts to limit my kid's screentime? Are you just arguing for the sake of arguing?