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Because you can have many concurrent proofs of ownership. For example someone sells a land twice, the first buyer leaves for 20 years and them come back with a
by afiori 7y ago
Because you can have many concurrent proofs of ownership.
For example someone sells a land twice, the first buyer leaves for 20 years and them come back with a better proof of ownership than the farmer that worked there 19 years.
- mehrdadn 7y agoBut in your case the second buyer has proof too. The law says they still own it even if they don't have proof and even if the first one does. Why is that necessary?
- afiori 7y agoHe has a proof of ownership. It is just that the only way to discover that his proof is invalid if when the first owner contest it.