2 ms·
The point (not very well communicated) is that the comparison is pre-tax when it should be post-tax.
by dnadler 7y ago
The point (not very well communicated) is that the comparison is pre-tax when it should be post-tax.
- tptacek 7y agoDoesn't that make the difference even more stark?
- dnadler 7y agoYeah, I guess I should have said "post-tax and post-insurance/wellfare parity". Though you're right, the US salary would have lower taxes and the difference would look larger. I suppose the GP was weighting tail events quite heavily. Comparing the distribution of financial outcomes accross countries, given a certain salary would be very interesting.