3 ms·

Provide some evidence then. What percentage of women could vote then? What percentage of blacks? If it's not a significant amount, your reply isn't much of a re

Provide some evidence then. What percentage of women could vote then? What percentage of blacks? If it's not a significant amount, your reply isn't much of a rebuttal.

DuskStar 7y ago
The original requirements were the same for everyone - white or black, male or female - though thanks to the doctrine of coverture, married women would not have the assets to qualify. (Married women could generally not own property independent of their husband) Coverture was not applied universally however, and many married women still voted. See [0] > That all inhabitants of this Colony, of full age, who are worth fifty pounds proclamation money, clear estate in the same, and have resided within the county in which they claim a vote for twelve months immediately preceding the election, shall be entitled to vote for Representatives in Council and Assembly; and also for all other public officers, that shall be elected by the people of the county at large. It's probably also worth noting that these restrictions applied to men, too. 0: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_New_Jersey_State_Constitution#Constitution_of_1776 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_New_Jersey_Stat...
- yellowapple 7y ago
  On that note, a couple states in the Western US were early adopters of womens' suffrage, mostly to boost their numbers and/or to sway women into moving west; Wyoming is the famous example, but Colorado, Idaho, and - surprisingly enough - Utah all had formally legalized womens' right to vote in general elections prior to 1900.
- moate 7y ago
  Rolling back to the original point, that the US was High Trust right from the start, doesn't the point that there were major barrier's to entry for being part of the "democracy" for both men and women show that there was some inaccuracy to that statement?

3 ms·

Provide some evidence then. What percentage of women could vote then? What percentage of blacks? If it's not a significant amount, your reply isn't much of a re

by ikeyany 7y ago

Provide some evidence then. What percentage of women could vote then? What percentage of blacks? If it's not a significant amount, your reply isn't much of a rebuttal.

DuskStar 7y ago
The original requirements were the same for everyone - white or black, male or female - though thanks to the doctrine of coverture, married women would not have the assets to qualify. (Married women could generally not own property independent of their husband) Coverture was not applied universally however, and many married women still voted. See [0] > That all inhabitants of this Colony, of full age, who are worth fifty pounds proclamation money, clear estate in the same, and have resided within the county in which they claim a vote for twelve months immediately preceding the election, shall be entitled to vote for Representatives in Council and Assembly; and also for all other public officers, that shall be elected by the people of the county at large. It's probably also worth noting that these restrictions applied to men, too. 0: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_New_Jersey_State_Constitution#Constitution_of_1776 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_the_New_Jersey_Stat...
- yellowapple 7y ago
  On that note, a couple states in the Western US were early adopters of womens' suffrage, mostly to boost their numbers and/or to sway women into moving west; Wyoming is the famous example, but Colorado, Idaho, and - surprisingly enough - Utah all had formally legalized womens' right to vote in general elections prior to 1900.
- moate 7y ago
  Rolling back to the original point, that the US was High Trust right from the start, doesn't the point that there were major barrier's to entry for being part of the "democracy" for both men and women show that there was some inaccuracy to that statement?