on (sic) of the reasons of the downfall of the West is that women were given (still fortunately limited) decision power about money. I missed where the OP disc

on (sic) of the reasons of the downfall of the West is that women were given (still fortunately limited) decision power about money. I missed where the OP discusses the downfall of the West (past tense) and/or the role of women being “given” economic power. Did the author say this? If not, are you claiming this? I don’t want to rush to condemnation, please clarify what this statement is doing in your comment.