Sure. I don't dispute that the author of the text in the NT was probably inspired by Leviticus. And both Leviticus and NT use "men" there. I don't agree that c

Sure. I don't dispute that the author of the text in the NT was probably inspired by Leviticus. And both Leviticus and NT use "men" there. I don't agree that codefreakxff's claim that "the original version was against sleeping with young boys, not men" is correct. Because Greeks had the specific word for that and didn't use it there, but used the word arsenokoitai. Searching even more, this internet poster even argues that the Paul used that rare word (with "men") because he used the more common for "fornicators": https://www.quora.com/How-has-usage-of-the-term-arsenokoitai-changed-over-time-and-does-the-word-appear-anywhere-other-than-the-Bible https://www.quora.com/How-has-usage-of-the-term-arsenokoitai... "Centuries before Paul, the πορν- porn- root referred only to prostitutes & prostitution. But over the centuries, the meaning expanded to include all illicit sexual contact. Paul had already used the word πόρνοι pornoi to mean fornicators. What that meant is that Greek, for all intents and purposes, no longer had a word that specifically referred to having sex for money. That alone was reason to create a new word for it." That actually sounds strange to me, that at Paul's time there was not a specific word for prostitutes.