You need to take into account the added value of productivity gains: who’s getting it? If I have a better yield for a given task, then I will provide exactly w

You need to take into account the added value of productivity gains: who’s getting it? If I have a better yield for a given task, then I will provide exactly what my employer asked me for the price we agreed. Eg. That means that if we agreed for 8h * 5d for a given task, and manage to do it in 8h * 3d, I obviously won’t work more. At least not before discussing the share of my productivity gains added value. Being zealous is the best way to get fooled. Another thing, these 40h or even 35h in France won’t limit your freedom, you can obviously work more: it’s a disguised pay raise. I think also that’s not ideal if applied uniformly. The price of some goods and services will mechanically rise, and you might end up “richer” but everything got expensive at the same time. It should be bound to the marginal cost of production or the derivative of the price wrt quantity. If you’re sublinear then you’re good to go. Otherwise it’s simply a no no. Sorry if there’s some mistakes, I’m typing on my phone.