I'm assuming the logic goes something like: If we are leveraged at 100% when we take the real valuation of assets into account, then, if we jack up the valuati

I'm assuming the logic goes something like: If we are leveraged at 100% when we take the real valuation of assets into account, then, if we jack up the valuation on assets we hold, then we can chip away at the leverage ratio and get it to go down.