4 ms·
If there is no data, obviously GDPR doesn't apply.
by kyberias 7y ago
If there is no data, obviously GDPR doesn't apply.
- deleted 7y ago[deleted]
- zamadatix 7y agoI'm more focusing on this section of the article where the legal source says 2 interesting things: "just collecting the data is illegal if the women didn’t consent, according to Börge Seeger, a data protection expert and partner at German law firm Neuwerk. These laws apply to any information from EU residents, so they would have held even if the programmer weren’t living in the EU." #1 the programmer is implicated (it's possible this is in the context of "the programmer" also being "user in Europe") #2 even if they weren't living in the EU #2 is the particularly interesting one and also opens up the general question of "what happens if <external group> collects data but does not handle monetary transactions in Europe or deal with money abroad". GPDR is very much written around how to wrangle companies in financially, what if it's not a company?