And yet when we considered the variables you mentioned, the conclusion didn’t change. What is the point of mentioning that decreasing household size could make

And yet when we considered the variables you mentioned, the conclusion didn’t change. What is the point of mentioning that decreasing household size could make the number misleading, when household size didn’t decrease by a significant amount? What is the point of repeatedly bringing up workforce participation by women? It’s fine to say that a measure might be misleading because of other factors. But when those factors don’t actually make it misleading for the example being discussed, I don’t really get the point. It’s also weird that you focus entirely on the possibility that everyone is better off. Isn’t it also possible that everyone is worse off while the median household income remains flat? Smells of ideological bias.