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Which I consider outright discrimination. Why exactly would the vote of one individual be less or more worth then a vote from another individual?
by mlang23 7y ago
Which I consider outright discrimination. Why exactly would the vote of one individual be less or more worth then a vote from another individual?
- christkv 7y agoI don't make a judgment call towards if one is better than the other but I do firmly believe that 50% + 1 vote is not a mandate. I would really like to see a proper 2/3 majority before you let someone impose their will on the other group. Proportional representation has one interesting side effect it seems. You get more political parties in parliament leaving lunatic fringe groups their own parties and allowing the centre mostly to rule.
- ghaff 7y ago>You get more political parties in parliament leaving lunatic fringe groups their own parties and allowing the centre mostly to rule. Or you have to put together a coalition to rule which may include cozying up to one or more "lunatic fringe groups" out of all proportion to how many seats they have.
- flo123456 7y agoGermany has had coalition governments almost all the time since 1949, and there are very few „lunatic fringe groups“ in parliament. Let alone part of the government.