If some process M behaves according to fixed rules yet no other process can exist that can determine, with certainty, M's behavior ahead of M, then M is still "

If some process M behaves according to fixed rules yet no other process can exist that can determine, with certainty, M's behavior ahead of M, then M is still "deterministic" in the physics sense of the word, but is it deterministic enough to claim no free will? I guess some could say that M is not free because the decisive question is, could have M behaved differently? But I am not sure that question is entirely well-defined.