3 ms·

I think the issue had more to do with not using a condom (with the explicit non-consent of the two women) than with the sex (for which he mostly had consent)

• rayiner 7y ago
  What the fuck is “mostly having consent” for sex?
  • kenneth 7y ago
    In the case of Miss A, he had reluctant consent. In the case of Miss W, he had consent for sex, but not explicit consent to initiate sex while sleeping. The thing that both of these women reportedly felt violated by was his disregard for their explicit request to use a condom.
    • sweeneyrod 7y ago
      "not explicit consent to initiate sex while sleeping" In other words, he had sex with someone without the capacity to consent, which is rape.