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The loan originator has a different risk calculation when their ultimate intent is to offload 90% of the loan(s). Some might say it would be in their own financ
by logicalmind 7y ago
The loan originator has a different risk calculation when their ultimate intent is to offload 90% of the loan(s). Some might say it would be in their own financial interest to minimize the amount of due diligence involved in determining whether to give such loans. Plausible deniability.
From a buyer's perspective, they receive the due diligence that the originator provided. There are various risk models put in place with that information, but they are also "insured".
These are the same fundamentals that led to the 2008 crisis. Giving loans to people who weren't actually qualified. Miscalculating the risk, intentionally or not. Buyers ok with the risk, assuming the insurance would come through in the worst case.
If there is an event, or a series of events, that cause these loan takes to become insolvent, say losing jobs with no hope of getting a new one (truck drivers being replaced with self-driving trucks?), that would cause large amount of loan defaults...
- cm2187 7y agoExcept the 90% is not a vertical slice, it is horizontal. I.e, the first 10% of notional in losses on the whole portfolio goes back to the originator. The profit on the transaction would have to be huge for this not to realign the incentives.