4 ms·

What are you arguing? That wages haven't risen since?

• ajuc 8y ago
  That doubling of salaries in 1 year because of some business owner's good will is hardly a representative example of how capitalism works.
  • naasking 8y ago
    "Good will" isn't the reason, that's the point.
• blueline 8y ago
  wages have absolutely not risen proportional to worker productivity https://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/ https://www.epi.org/productivity-pay-gap/
  • logicchains 8y ago
    An increase in aggregate worker productivity isn't necessarily an increase in the ability of workers; most productivity gains are attributable to capital investment. If you took a productive modern worker back 500 years, they wouldn't be much more productive than the locals of that time, as they'd lack the tooling, machinery, resources, equipment and factories that magnify human productivity today. It hence makes sense that the gains from rises in productivity wouldn't all accrue to workers, as the gains result from the actions of business owners investing in better means of production, not from action on the workers' part.
    • astazangasta 7y ago
      All productivity gain is the result of capital investment. That doesn't mean the benefits should not accrue to workers. Who do you think is provisioning, configuring and using the machines that result in that gain? Shareholders?