If by "democracy" we mean "a certain privileged class of humans have shared influence in their government, usually by voting," then the US founding fathers were

If by "democracy" we mean "a certain privileged class of humans have shared influence in their government, usually by voting," then the US founding fathers were rather late to the game - plenty of republics had that already. If by "democracy" we mean "there is no privileged class, and all people born in the land can vote if they are of age and have not had their privileges removed by due process of law," or we mean "that all Men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable rights, and among these are Life, Liberty, and the Pursuit of Happiness" (the Declaration of Independence), or we mean "Everyone has the right to take part in the government of his country, directly or through freely chosen representatives.... The will of the people shall be the basis of the authority of government; this will shall be expressed in periodic and genuine elections which shall be by universal and equal suffrage" (Universal Declaration of Human Rights), then yes, I think the people responsible for the Constitution were quite adversarial to that goal. The United Kingdom, in freedom from whom the US founding fathers supposedly established democracy, banned slavery over half a century before the US did and slowly but steadily allowed more people to vote for Parliament during the 1800s. At the time the US Constitution was established, only 6% of the US population could vote, according to https://web.archive.org/web/20160706144856/http://www.archives.gov/exhibits/charters/charters_of_freedom_13.html https://web.archive.org/web/20160706144856/http://www.archiv... .