4 ms·
No. Reverse discrimination is just that: discrimination
by colejohnson66 8y ago
No. Reverse discrimination is just that: discrimination
- dragonwriter 8y agoAll law is discrimination. Some is impermissible discrimination, but the test for that isn't “would it be impermissible if reversed”, and not only because that would produce infinite regress with no answer, but because mirroring policy without mirroring social context does not result in mirror policies necessarily falling on the same side of the legal tests of impermissible discrimination.
- torstenvl 8y agoBut see Adarand Constructors, Inc. v. Peña, 515 U.S. 200 (1995). https://www.law.cornell.edu/supremecourt/text/515/200 https://www.law.cornell.edu/supremecourt/text/515/200
- dragonwriter 8y agoSure, the standard is the same in either direction.