2 ms·
If there is a sex-defined bi-modal distribution of neurological characteristics, meaning for instance in IQ, then there are two separate but overlapping curves
by WhompingWindows 8y ago
If there is a sex-defined bi-modal distribution of neurological characteristics, meaning for instance in IQ, then there are two separate but overlapping curves for the sexes, then it's true that there is both overlap and difference between the sexes. This difference is clearly evident in physical traits like height, which is an objective measurement, whereas the utility of IQ will be debated for decades, most likely. We can't argue that IQ is non-overlapping though, there are low and high outliers in each sex or in every subgroup that will overlap with every other subgroup (same goes for race, economic status, education, any socio-dem slice you can think of). Given large populations, this is practically a certainty.
IMO, the problem arises in the subjectivity of psycho-metrics, which can be very lackluster tools. IQ, cognitive function, working memory, long term memory, and on and on -much harder to establish a clear difference between these across the two sexes, given with such imprecise and arbitrary measures.