3 ms·
Isn't that a principle relating to proving ownership? If yes, then no, that is not what I meant, although I think I see what you are getting at. What I meant
by averageperson 8y ago
Isn't that a principle relating to proving ownership?
If yes, then no, that is not what I meant, although I think I see what you are getting at.
What I meant was, "Is there a jurisdiction where a company cannot license (permit) access to data contigent on prior assent to an agreement with conditions on use, duration of use, transfer, etc. such that the licensee does not get the same rights as the owner of the data?"
- rhizome 8y agoIt's not a principle relating to proving ownership. You cannot own contraband, for instance. "Is there a jurisdiction where a company cannot license (permit) access to data contigent on prior assent to an agreement with conditions on use, duration of use, transfer, etc. such that the licensee does not get the same rights as the owner of the data?" I, uh...do you mean...nevermind, I can't figure it out. Can you rearrange the question into a less pseudolegal form?
- averageperson 8y ago"Is there a jurisdiction where there is no legal distinction between selling data (transferring ownership) and providing access to data for a fee (licensing)?" I thought perhaps you had a jurisdiction in mind where there is no difference. Needless to say, in the US and in many other countries where Facebook conducts business, there is a difference.