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So in the case of copyrighted laws in OP's scenario: The government passes laws (creating the text) and then someone or some company buys the rights to the text

by kamarg 8y ago

So in the case of copyrighted laws in OP's scenario: The government passes laws (creating the text) and then someone or some company buys the rights to the text of the laws. Then the government (who created the text in the first place) pays the person who paid them to be able to display the text on a website? And you can't see why I would question such a situation?

SilasX 8y ago
No, you mischaracterized the scenario. It's more like, a professional association writes their definition of how to build something while being "sure enough" that it won't flood, collapse, electrocute you etc. The government says, "oh, yeah, sounds right. Everyone has to do it that way." And then pays that group royalties whenever someone wants to check that they're in compliance. That's no different from any other copyright situation, in terms of producing something of value and having to be paid for each copy, except that the government has propped up demand by making it the law and absorbing the royalty cost.