Yes, I think it isn't. Here[0] is a meta-study that illustrates the prevalence of transgenderism across continents and across time. It seems that as the concept

Yes, I think it isn't. Here[0] is a meta-study that illustrates the prevalence of transgenderism across continents and across time. It seems that as the concept of transgenderism becomes normalized, its prevalence increases. This is the same effect we have seen with homosexuality, so it's not terribly surprising. The short summary: as a lower bound, probably more than 1 in 10k people (0.01%) would identify as transgender. Including the DSM definition of gender dysphoria as an indicator, that figure rises to 1% or possibly even higher. Now, my question to you: how small should a subset be to be statistically insignificant? For popular reference (and I apologize for using this example again), keep in mind that the global prevalence of Judaism is 0.2%. [0] https://web.archive.org/web/20141205022609/http://web.hku.hk/~sjwinter/TransgenderASIA/paper-how-many-trans-people-are-there.htm https://web.archive.org/web/20141205022609/http://web.hku.hk...