3 ms·
Probably not. If the transfer price is zero, then that now becomes my tax basis in the property. So assuming again that I put in $100k originally, and now take
by URSpider94 8y ago
Probably not. If the transfer price is zero, then that now becomes my tax basis in the property. So assuming again that I put in $100k originally, and now take out one house worth $150k, then sell it, I’m going to pay capital gains on the full $150k, not just my $50k gain.
What probably happens is that I sell you my share in the holding entity for $150k, and the entity sells me the house for $150k.
There are cases where you could simply dissolve the entity and distribute the assets, which would avoid the sale and resulting taxes, in which case you’re just re-titling it and not selling it.
Tl;dr: this gets complicated really quickly.