4 ms·
> Why is it an acceptable basis to discriminate on height, but not melanin content? Because society as a whole hasn't spent hundreds of years literally enslavi
by crooked-v 8y ago
> Why is it an acceptable basis to discriminate on height, but not melanin content?
Because society as a whole hasn't spent hundreds of years literally enslaving short people before deciding that strict moral and legal standards are necessary to prevent it from happening again.
- 0815test 8y ago> Because society as a whole hasn't spent hundreds of years literally enslaving short people Actually, they have done exactly that. For many centuries before appropriate nutrition became essentially ubiquitous, there was indeed a highly-significant correlation between height and social class - and the lowest class often faced near-slavery conditions in surprisingly recent times, especially outside Western Europe. Of course, you're right that "strict moral and legal standards" are rather lacking on the issue. I'm not sure that we would agree on whether that's a desirable state of affairs.
- crooked-v 8y agoComparing the unpleasantness of peasant life to literal chattel slavery is disingenuous at best, and you're conflating correlation and causation here, as people in unpleasant lives coincidentally ending up short because of poor nutrition is a far cry from cross-continental kidnapping and selling members of a genetically-short ethnic group on an industrial scale.
- deleted 8y ago[deleted]