How is what I'm saying incorrect? You're agreeing with me that the ECJ voided the treaty. Here's what Article 50 says: 3. The Treaties shall cease to apply to

How is what I'm saying incorrect? You're agreeing with me that the ECJ voided the treaty. Here's what Article 50 says: 3. The Treaties shall cease to apply to the State in question from the date of entry into force of the withdrawal agreement or, failing that, two years after the notification referred to in paragraph 2, unless the European Council, in agreement with the Member State concerned, unanimously decides to extend this period. The treaties cease to apply two years after the notification date unless the Council decides unanimously to extend. The ECJ read this and said, nope, unanimous consent not required actually, the country can simply revoke it (i.e. extend indefinitely) at any time.