> The law is clear. As usual with law, not so much. Can you say with any certainty that "indicates any preference" doesn't refer to the content of the ad? Allo

> The law is clear. As usual with law, not so much. Can you say with any certainty that "indicates any preference" doesn't refer to the content of the ad? Allowing an ad to be targeted in a discriminatory way might be wrong morally, but it's not at all clear that the law as written and (so far) interpreted by courts supports your conclusion.