It may well be a misinterpretation of Barcelona's zoning code. Apologies if I gave you the impression that I was familiar with that law. What I'm saying is tha

It may well be a misinterpretation of Barcelona's zoning code. Apologies if I gave you the impression that I was familiar with that law. What I'm saying is that it would make sense to me if a zoning code (or other regulations) were to include a requirement to actually use the land/property for the designated purpose (if possible) or swiftly sell it to someone who will. That wouldn't compell anyone to be a landlord. In my view, such a rule would be completely consistent with the usual meaning of the words "use" and "purpose" and it would be consistent with the fine.