> Someone in Asia is five times more likely to be using IE8 than someone in Oceania. The above is based on 0.09% usage in Oceania vs 0.50% usage in Asia. A bi

> Someone in Asia is five times more likely to be using IE8 than someone in Oceania. The above is based on 0.09% usage in Oceania vs 0.50% usage in Asia. A bit off topic, but is that how statistics works? Like since the likelihood percentage is not on an absolute, unlimited scale but a relative scale I don't think it's meaningful to say that, is it? I guess you can say that selecting a random person, you're 5 times more likely to pick an IE8 user in Asia than Oceania. But is it correct to say that a specific individual is 5 times more likely to use IE8? I cant decide if there's a difference there, or if it's just a different way of saying the same thing.