2 ms·
Nobody does, really. It has to be defined in context of the 'gravity of the offence'. I'm sure someone could make a good argument that 1% of the value of a prop
by lazyasciiart 8y ago
Nobody does, really. It has to be defined in context of the 'gravity of the offence'. I'm sure someone could make a good argument that 1% of the value of a property is reasonable.
- londons_explore 8y agoAs a 'fine', 100 or even 200 percent of a property could be argued reasonable. 'You aren't using this property as the law intended, so you have to give it to us and pay a penalty'. If I steal an apple from Walmart, should the fine be 1 percent of the value of the apple? Clearly not.