> "whenever one of an inherently-coupled pair of actions is morally allowed, the other of those actions is morally allowed". Why does that follow? I could unde

> "whenever one of an inherently-coupled pair of actions is morally allowed, the other of those actions is morally allowed". Why does that follow? I could understand it for actions you are morally obliged to do, but I fail to see why it follows for actions which are merely allowed. A 6-year old boy is allowed to fall in love with his teacher, but she is not allowed to fall in love with him, so his love - even though morally allowed - can never be fulfilled. That is a perfectly fine situation, from a moral point of view.