3 ms·
If the donor pays for a service why does it "donates" instead to pay? This smells very much like donating to a political party just to get government contracts
by thefounder 8y ago
If the donor pays for a service why does it "donates" instead to pay?
This smells very much like donating to a political party just to get government contracts which I believe is bribery.
- lotsofpulp 8y agoIt is exactly that, and they get reduced taxes for it.
- extra88 8y agoI don't like it but U.S. courts do not consider party donations, or even more direct benefits, to get contracts bribery unless there's explicit evidence; B following A does not mean A caused B unless the people involved say so, even if there's a clear pattern. I think it's a corollary of their misguided "money is speech" interpretation of the 1st amendment. A university admissions bribery case is unlikely to benefit from such 1st amendment arguments.