No they have not been and they were not paid the same because of sexist discrimination. Here is one article discussing the historical reduction (not eliminiatio

No they have not been and they were not paid the same because of sexist discrimination. Here is one article discussing the historical reduction (not eliminiation) of the gender pay gap: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2Fs13524-014-0320-y https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2Fs13524-014-0320-... As the article argues, the reduction is largely due to a reduction in the "unexplained part", which is usually attributed to discrimination. You can also find other sources on Wikipedia suggesting your claim is wrong: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Male–female_income_disparity_in_the_United_States https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Male–female_income_disparity_i...