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The premiere dialectic in this area is Lakatos' "Proof and Refutations", which I highly recommend in general, and has plenty to say about the present topic. >
by Twisol 8y ago
The premiere dialectic in this area is Lakatos' "Proof and Refutations", which I highly recommend in general, and has plenty to say about the present topic.
> Q: Wait, where did "x" come from?
A proof from intuition is not the same as a formal proof with an insightful step. I wager that many formal proofs (in Coq, say) would spur such "Wait, what is that for?" questions.
In this case, the selection of some arbitrary non-zero real "x" is a creative step, not an intuitive one. The missing proviso that "x" is non-zero is an oversight, but it's a "small error", and -- with some experiential intuition -- can be recovered.
(EDIT: The arbitrary variable is quickly overridden with a specific definition, but this is not typical unless there's a good reason to conceptualize it this way. If its value is obvious, define it up front and discuss why that value is the correct one.)
> What if "d" is zero?
This is (very nearly) a refutation, in the sense of Lakatos. We reflect and decide that our basic proof idea works for rectangles of positive area, and in some sense zero-area rectangles aren't really the objects we wanted to talk about. So we include this as an assumption.
The digression about division by zero, inverses, etc. is valuable, but missing the point that this is an algebraic representation of a geometric problem. There's a lot that could be said about whether geometry is intuitive or formal, but I think the issue of divisibility by zero is side-stepping most of the interesting stuff.
...anyway, this is quite a convoluted proof. We assume a priori that for any rectangle R, its "area" A(R) is well-defined and computable. We'll assume that the rectangles are axis-aligned with side-lengths R.x and R.y for each axis. We could have a separate discussion and proof about the invariance of area under a change of basis.
Theorem: Given a rectangle R with non-zero side-lengths R.x and R.y, and given a non-zero real number c, there exists a rectangle R2 with non-zero side-lengths where R2.x = c and A(R) = A(R2).
Proof: Because R2.x is already specified, we need only determine R2.y. We know that, for rectangles, A(R) = R.x * R.y. So we desire that R.x * R.y = R2.x * R2.y. Because R2.x = c and c is non-zero, we have the equivalent desire that (R.x * R.y) / c = R2.y. Thus, the rectangle where R2.x = c and R2.y = (R.x * R.y) / c will have the same area as R and will have the desired side-length c. []
English? Yes. But it has more similarity with legalese than informal English. Each clause makes direct appeal to some rule of logic, and it could be transformed into a Coq proof (or any other proof assistant) without much ceremony.
- mgsouth 8y ago> ...anyway, this is quite a convoluted proof. Agreed :) > Theorem: Given a rectangle R with non-zero side-lengths... And this is the key problem with the "proof" I laid out. My theorem does not specify non-zero dimensions. Therefore standard arithmetic division by a dimension is not well-defined. Since we're pondering intuition, it's interesting to consider how fixing the "proof" was approached. On the one hand, you fixed it by in effect back-progating invariants to the problem definition. Another approach would be to use a modified definition of "division" ("d = 0 if a or b are zero"--would still require the constraint "c !=0 unless a*b=0"). Mathematically, the former appoach is almost always what you're going to want, since a modified definition will be pretty useless to build upon consistently. From an application standpoint, the latter would be much more robust. This is kind of one of the points made in the Sci Am article--pure vs. applied proofs are different.
- Twisol 8y agoYes, this is a fair point! Interestingly though, projective geometry already provides us with a space potentially suited to this question — I find https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Projectively_extended_real_line https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Projectively_extended_real_l... to be a good introduction, although I’m not terribly familiar with the field myself. The intuition behind this choice is, if we’re squishing the rectangle so hard that one side approaches 0 length, the constant area has to go somewhere. If the other side length approaches infinity, why not literally let its measure be infinity? One would argue that the real numbers are too impoverished to give a satisfactorily general answer to our original question. Of course, we still obtain a zero area, so we’re no longer really solving the same problem as we started with. If we want a zero side length and a non-zero area, we may need to move into non-Euclidean geometries. It really depends on what we’re doing. My point is that when an application needs to make changes to the foundation, usually there’s going to be a richer pure setting we can move to. And if there isn’t yet, that’s a great opportunity to find out how robust of a new foundation we can create. Hiding edge cases away in an otherwise unobtrusive definition bothers me as both a mathematician and as a software developer. In all cases, I want to highlight the assumptions we’re making and find the right abstraction to tame them.