>There are valid historical reasons to explain why there is a correlation between wealth, ethnicity and gender but the causality is not there anymore. Why not?

>There are valid historical reasons to explain why there is a correlation between wealth, ethnicity and gender but the causality is not there anymore. Why not? What allows you to make the claim that the time of extreme disenfranchisement (one generation ago) or ever slavery (two to three generations ago) bear no effect in 2019? Because they are not formally recognised in law? >My point is that a poor white kid will be just as disadvantaged today as an equally poor kid of any other race. Some would say that the white kid still has access to structural privileges afforded by society through extra-legal means. That's not to say his situation isn't bad, but it's probably less bad than the poor black kid's fate. This is reflected in biases about intelligence (for instance when an employer is deciding whether or not to hire), for instance.