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Uhh no, the US money laundering statute requires a) that the money involved be the proceeds of specific criminal activities, and b) that the financial transacti
by auntienomen 8y ago
Uhh no, the US money laundering statute requires a) that the money involved be the proceeds of specific criminal activities, and b) that the financial transactions be _knowingly_ used to disguise the origins and ownership of money.
It's used to punish people who are working to disguise serious crimes, principally the mob.
- jstanley 8y agoIn the UK, which is where Revolut is, in order to be convicted of money laundering you merely need to be charged with money laundering, and then fail to convince a court that you are innocent of money laundering. It's one of the few crimes where you're guilty until proven innocent.