2 ms·
> If drug companies are willing to sell the exact same drug in Canada or the UK or Germany or France for less than a percent (in some cases) of what they sell i
by chimeracoder 8y ago
> If drug companies are willing to sell the exact same drug in Canada or the UK or Germany or France for less than a percent (in some cases) of what they sell it here for then why can't US insurance companies, hospitals and consumers buy it for that price? There's no reason other than an artificial monopoly.
They're willing to do that because the US is a much larger market than any of those countries. Most pharmaceutical companies - including European companies - make the lion's share of their profits from the US market. If they couldn't, you'd certainly see the costs for essential medicines increase in European countries.
> You'll note that I didn't say "anywhere" and that was deliberate. India, for example, has decided that drug companies largely (it's complicated) don't get monopolies from patents and thus you can buy a lot of low-cost high-quality generics in India because no drug company is getting paid.
India has pretty solid reasons for not honoring drug patents that don't apply to the US or Europe.
- mancerayder 8y agoThey're willing to do that because the US is a much larger market than any of those countries. Most pharmaceutical companies - including European companies - make the lion's share of their profits from the US market. If they couldn't, you'd certainly see the costs for essential medicines increase in European countries. "Willing" is a broken way to look at it. The drug prices are negotiated by the government in the single-payer systems.
- chimeracoder 8y ago> "Willing" is a broken way to look at it. The drug prices are negotiated by the government in the single-payer systems. Most countries don't have single-payer systems, and even where that's the case, "negotiated" is the broken term. For essential medications, the supplier always has greater leverage than the purchaser.