Do you have a direct link to the paper? It doesn't look like it refute's the OP's point that the top 1% of people sorted by income are wage earners. The abstr

Do you have a direct link to the paper? It doesn't look like it refute's the OP's point that the top 1% of people sorted by income are wage earners. The abstract seems to be talking about "top income' (i.e. sort people by income and fetch from highest to lowest until you have 1% of all income in the US), which is a different measure. But hard to tell without the paper.