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I was thinking about how to better answer your question concerning the sub-zero game statement I made. Let's remove ourselves from finance for a minute into som
by brentr 18y ago
I was thinking about how to better answer your question concerning the sub-zero game statement I made. Let's remove ourselves from finance for a minute into something that is more traditional in the game theory studies--namely poker.
If the game is played where the players arrange transfers face to face such as in a home poker game, then the game is zero-sum. Your losses are my gains. No money is created. No money is destroyed. It stays inside the game. The minute we go to a casino to play the same game, the game becomes sub-zero due to the rake. You lose X to me and Y to the rake. I gain your X and lose Y to the rake.
Your cash flows: -X - Y. My cash flows: X - Y. In a zero-sum game your cash flows are the negative of my cash flows. This implies -(-X - Y) = X + Y. This is a contradiction. Therefore, the game is not zero-sum.
- muerdeme 18y agoI was thinking that, because the market created value, it couldn't be zero or negative sum. Now I realize that it's negative sum within the scope of the market itself, even though it may create value in a grander scheme of things.
- brentr 18y agoTo truly understand the implications of game theory applied to the financial markets, you should look up the concept of Pareto improvements and Pareto optimums.