3 ms·

I think you're greatly overstating the literacy levels of Medieval Europe.

• jacques_chester 8y ago
  The 500 years figure I chose was not a coincidence. The printing press and the Reformation are connected. If a person in Europe or the New World could read, they would have read some or all of it. Before that familiarity came from weekly readings at Mass, which is why I talked about partial familiarity for the thousand years prior. I'm an atheist, but there's a difference between dismissing the book's contents and dismissing the impact and influence of the book's contents.