3 ms·
And if I understand right, the reason is that the written language is more distinct from the spoken one(s) than in the west. Perhaps more like written mathemati
by improbable22 8y ago
And if I understand right, the reason is that the written language is more distinct from the spoken one(s) than in the west. Perhaps more like written mathematics, is this a terrible analogy? Russians write the same formulae with the exact same meaning, but say them over the phone completely differently.