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This argument could be used pretty much for any field and it's just BS. If you apply the same principle to all of language then you could say language has no i
by ta1234567890 8y ago
This argument could be used pretty much for any field and it's just BS.
If you apply the same principle to all of language then you could say language has no information. Try it with a dictionary, the words are distributed pretty uniformly, does the dictionary have no information?
Same for the whole universe.
So are you saying that "information" only exists when some arbitrary observer (in this case you), applies some sort of filter or boundary to what they are looking at?
- whatshisface 8y ago>Try it with a dictionary, the words are distributed pretty uniformly, does the dictionary have no information? That is not true at all: the dictionary is highly concentrated in correctly-spelled English words. If the dictionary was evenly spread over the space of sequences of letters A-Z it would not be useful at all, because next to Cat would be Cas and Cau.
- Retra 8y agoWords are not distributed uniformly in a dictionary at all. They are distributed according to the grammatical structure of the text.