I think the parent was commenting that since Red Hat did not offer a service, there is no legal restriction in distributing the code. In other words, if Red Ha

I think the parent was commenting that since Red Hat did not offer a service, there is no legal restriction in distributing the code. In other words, if Red Hat decided to change its stance on distributing only free software, they could do so legally. I'm glad they didn't, but I think the parent is correct. Edit: Usually don't complain about down votes, but I'd be happy to hear why the parent is incorrect if I've got it wrong. Are they not legally able to distribute for some reason? Re-Edit: I read the initial query incorrectly. Yes, the parent's post is unrelated to the query. Sorry!