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Ancient Rome was around 30-40% slaves, though there were many different kinds used in addition to chattel slavery (various forms of indentured servitude, etc),
by CptFribble 8y ago
Ancient Rome was around 30-40% slaves, though there were many different kinds used in addition to chattel slavery (various forms of indentured servitude, etc), so it's hard to make clear comparisons.
However, the Roman empire wouldn't have existed in it's highest form without slaves. They were integral to the economy.
- jahaja 8y agoI remember reading that the Greeks or Romans would probably consider today's average wage earner a slave. Interesting to ponder about.
- yellowbuilding 8y agoCapitalism is feudalism with polymorphism.
- watwut 8y agoThere are important difference among others ability of wage earner to leave without being beaten or killed for it. Feudal system gets closer to it and it is still not the same thing.
- Padefrel 8y agoCheck Jonathan A.C. Brown's forthcoming Islam and Slavery (October 8, 2019) for a very detailed treatment of that question (Note that I checked the drafts of his book that he posted on his academia profile).
- watwut 8y agoI am not sure what exactly does that prove or show? Once there was slavery somewhere we can not talk about how slavery evolved and got big elsewhere? Since it was in Rome, it was not profitable in south? Or which of my points is invalid by slavery being in Rome too? Julius Caesar basically committed genocide and that is Rome, therefore we should not analyse origins and philosophies of contemporary genocides?