This logic just doesn't make any sense. The relationship between charging for a rental and capitalism is obvious. Nothing that transpired even hints that sexism

This logic just doesn't make any sense. The relationship between charging for a rental and capitalism is obvious. Nothing that transpired even hints that sexism could have played a role, conscious or otherwise, and the data that we do have suggests the opposite. Why are you digging your heels in and insisting that there must be a bias component involved in this decision?